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Latest UPSC PYQ with Answers

101–120 of 320
  1. Q101 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following types of vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles. How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three✓
    4. None
    Answer explanation

    All the three All three vehicle types listed—full battery electric vehicles, hydrogen fuel cell vehicles, and fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles—use non-conventional powertrains (as opposed to internal combustion engines) and are…

    Electric vehiclesScience and technology
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  2. Q102 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as the source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None✓
    Answer explanation

    None Not all UAVs can perform vertical landing (fixed-wing UAVs require runway-style landings), not all can hover (fixed-wing types cannot), and not all UAVs use only batteries (many use fuel-powered engines, especially larger/longer-range…

    DronesScience and technologyUav
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  3. Q103 2025 Prelims GS

    In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel. How many of the above usually make up the cathode of the battery?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three✓
    4. All the four
    Answer explanation

    Only three In common lithium-ion EV battery chemistries (e.g., NMC - Nickel Manganese Cobalt), the cathode is typically composed of lithium along with cobalt and nickel. Graphite, however, is primarily used in the anode, not the cathode.…

    Battery chemistryEv batteriesScience and technology
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  6. Q106 2025 Prelims GS

    What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

    1. These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants
    2. These are explosives in military weapons✓
    3. These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
    4. These are fuels for rocket propulsion
    Answer explanation

    These are explosives in military weapons CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are all high-energy chemical compounds used as explosives in military ordnance and weapons systems, valued for their high energy density and (in the case of insensitive…

    DefenceExplosivesScience and technology
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  7. Q107 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following statements: I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only✓
    4. I, II and III
    Answer explanation

    I and III only The Majorana 1 chip, aimed at enabling scalable quantum computing using topological qubits, was introduced by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services, so Statement II is incorrect.…

    AiQuantum computingScience and technology
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  8. Q108 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements: I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III✓
    Answer explanation

    I, II and III Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-engineered (man-made) proteins designed to bind specifically to target antigens, thereby triggering or supporting immune responses, and they have been used/explored as treatments for viral…

    BiotechnologyMonoclonal antibodiesScience and technology
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  9. Q109 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following statements: I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None✓
    Answer explanation

    None All three statements are factually incorrect: viruses do survive and are abundant in ocean waters; bacteriophages are viruses that specifically infect bacteria; and many viruses do alter/hijack the host cell's transcriptional…

    BiologyScience and technologyVirology
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  10. Q110 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Statement II: Activated carbon has a very high surface area and has a strong capacity to adsorb heavy metals. Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I✓
    2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
    Answer explanation

    Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I Activated carbon's high surface area giving it strong adsorption capacity for heavy metals (Statement II) directly explains its effectiveness in removing…

    Activated carbonEnvironmentPollution control
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  11. Q111 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only✓
    4. I, II and III
    Answer explanation

    I and III only An Ordinance issued under Article 123 has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend or repeal any Central Act (I, correct) and can be made retrospective, coming into effect from a back date (III…

    Article 123OrdinancePolity
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  12. Q112 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following pairs (State : Description): I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks. II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act. III. Tripura : Initially it was Part 'C' State; it became a centrally-administered territory on the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two✓
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Answer explanation

    Only two Arunachal Pradesh's capital Itanagar is named after the fort 'Ita Fort', and the state has two national parks (Namdapha and Mouling), making pair I correct.…

    GeographyPolityStates of india
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  13. Q113 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils. How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

    1. Only one✓
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Answer explanation

    Only one The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The National Security Council is an extra-constitutional advisory body set up by an executive resolution, and Zonal Councils were established…

    Inter-state councilPolityZonal councils
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  14. Q114 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres, the Governor of a State acts as per his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration, even if it has not been forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. Only I✓
    2. Only II
    3. I and II both
    4. Neither I nor II
    Answer explanation

    Only I Article 163 of the Constitution explicitly provides that the Governor shall act in certain matters in his/her own discretion, making Statement I correct.…

    GovernorPolityPresident's powers
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  15. Q115 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following pairs (Provision in the Constitution of India : Stated under): I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : Directive Principles of State Policy. II. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture : Fundamental Duties. III. Prohibition of employment of children below 14 years of age in factories : Fundamental Rights. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three✓
    4. None
    Answer explanation

    All the three Separation of judiciary from the executive (Article 50) is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (I correct).…

    Directive principlesFundamental rightsPolity
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  16. Q116 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if the Fifth Schedule area in a State is declared as a Scheduled Area, then I. In such areas, the State Government loses its executive power and a local body assumes total administration. II. The Government of the Union can, under certain circumstances, take over the total administration of such areas on the recommendations of the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. Only I
    2. Only II✓
    3. I and II both
    4. Neither I nor II
    Answer explanation

    Only II In Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government does not automatically lose executive power to a local body; rather, the Governor has special powers to regulate the applicability of laws and administration…

    Fifth schedulePolityScheduled areas
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  17. Q117 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to India, consider the following pairs (Organization : Union Ministry): I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry. II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries. III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None✓
    Answer explanation

    None The National Automotive Board functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries (not Commerce and Industry), the Coir Board functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (not Heavy Industries), and the National…

    Government organizationsMinistriesPolity
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  18. Q118 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I - Union List, in the Seventh Schedule. II. Extent of the executive power of a State. III. Conditions of the Governor's office. For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

    1. I and II only✓
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
    Answer explanation

    I and II only Under the proviso to Article 368(2), amendments affecting matters such as the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States (which includes the Union List) and the extent of the executive power of the Union…

    Article 368Constitutional amendmentPolity
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  19. Q119 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. A Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. No Member of a State Legislature is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said in the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III✓
    Answer explanation

    I, II and III Article 361 provides Governors immunity from court proceedings for the exercise of powers and duties of office (I) and protection from criminal proceedings during their term (II).…

    GovernorLegislative privilegesPolity
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  20. Q120 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following activities: I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas. How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two✓
    3. Only three
    4. All the four
    Answer explanation

    Only two The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) regulates the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas (downstream activities), i.e.…

    EconomyPetroleum sectorPngrb
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