UPSC solved previous year questions

UPSC Polity PYQ with Answers

132 solved Polity questions from previous UPSC papers, each with an answer and explanation.

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Questions
132
Years covered
2017–2026
Exam years
9
With answers
132

Polity questions by year

2026 🔒9 202524 202416 2023 🔒26 2022 🔒21 2020 🔒10 2019 🔒12 2018 🔒11 2017 🔒3

UPSC Polity PYQ with Answers

1–20 of 40
  1. Q1 2025 Mains GS2

    Discuss the ‘corrupt practices’ for the purpose of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Analyze whether the increase in the assets of the legislators and/or their associates, disproportionate to their known sources of income, would constitute ‘undue influence’ and consequently a corrupt practice. (Answer in 150 words)

    Answer explanation

    The RPA, 1951 protects electoral choice by penalising practices that distort voter autonomy. Law Section 123 covers bribery, undue influence, communal appeals, false statements and prohibited expenditure.…

    Corrupt practicesElectionsPolity
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  2. Q2 2025 Mains GS2

    Comment on the need of administrative tribunals as compared to the court system. Assess the impact of the recent tribunal reforms through rationalization of tribunals made in 2021. (Answer in 150 words)

    Answer explanation

    Administrative tribunals provide specialist and relatively speedy adjudication for governance-related disputes. Need Specialisation, flexible procedure, regional access and focused jurisdiction can reduce court pendency.…

    JudiciaryPolityTribunals
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  3. Q3 2025 Mains GS2

    Compare and contrast the President’s power to pardon in India and in the USA. Are there any limits to it in both the countries? What are ‘preemptive pardons’? (Answer in 150 words)

    Answer explanation

    Clemency permits exceptional mercy and correction of injustice while remaining subject to constitutional design. Comparison India’s President acts under Article 72 on ministerial advice for Union offences, court-martial cases and death…

    ClemencyComparative constitutionExecutive power
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  4. Q4 2025 Mains GS2

    Discuss the nature of Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly after the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019. Briefly describe the powers and functions of the Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. (Answer in 150 words)

    Answer explanation

    The 2019 Act created the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh; J&K retained a legislature. Nature It is a unicameral UT legislature with narrower autonomy than a State.…

    FederalismJammu and kashmirPolity
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  5. Q5 2025 Mains GS2

    “The Attorney General of India plays a crucial role in guiding the legal framework of the Union Government and ensuring sound governance through legal counsel.” Discuss his responsibilities, rights and limitations in this regard. (Answer in 150 words)

    Answer explanation

    Article 76 establishes the Attorney General as the Union’s highest law officer and principal legal adviser. Responsibilities and rights Advises the Union, defends legislation and represents it in courts.…

    Attorney generalConstitutional officesLegal governance
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  6. Q6 2025 Mains GS2

    “Constitutional morality is the fulcrum which acts as an essential check upon the high functionaries and citizens alike…” In view of the above observation of the Supreme Court, explain the concept of constitutional morality and its application to ensure balance between judicial independence and judicial accountability in India. (Answer in 250 words)

    Answer explanation

    Constitutional morality means fidelity to the Constitution’s text, values and institutional discipline beyond mechanical legality.…

    Constitutional moralityJudicial accountabilityJudiciary
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  7. Q7 2025 Mains GS2

    Indian Constitution has conferred the amending power on the ordinary legislative institutions with a few procedural hurdles. In view of this statement, examine the procedural and substantive limitations on the amending power of the Parliament to change the Constitution. (Answer in 250 words)

    Answer explanation

    Article 368 gives Parliament constituent power while balancing adaptability against transient-majority domination. Procedural limits A bill may originate in either House; no joint sitting is available.…

    Article 368Basic structure doctrineConstitution
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  8. Q8 2025 Mains GS2

    Discuss the evolution of collegium system in India. Critically examine the advantages and disadvantages of the system of appointment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India and that of the USA. (Answer in 250 words)

    Answer explanation

    Judicial appointments balance independence, democratic legitimacy, competence and diversity. Evolution The First Judges Case favoured executive primacy; the Second created judicial primacy and the Third enlarged the collegium.…

    Collegium systemJudicial appointmentsJudiciary
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  10. Q10 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information (Organization / Some of its functions / It works under): I. Directorate of Enforcement – Enforcement of Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 – Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs. II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence – Enforces provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management – Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two✓
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Answer explanation

    Only two The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance (not the Ministry of Home Affairs), so row I is incorrectly matched.…

    Government organizationsPolity
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  11. Q11 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only✓
    4. I, II and III
    Answer explanation

    I and III only An Ordinance issued under Article 123 has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend or repeal any Central Act (I, correct) and can be made retrospective, coming into effect from a back date (III…

    Article 123OrdinancePolity
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  12. Q12 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following pairs (State : Description): I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks. II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act. III. Tripura : Initially it was Part 'C' State; it became a centrally-administered territory on the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two✓
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Answer explanation

    Only two Arunachal Pradesh's capital Itanagar is named after the fort 'Ita Fort', and the state has two national parks (Namdapha and Mouling), making pair I correct.…

    GeographyPolityStates of india
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  13. Q13 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils. How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

    1. Only one✓
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Answer explanation

    Only one The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The National Security Council is an extra-constitutional advisory body set up by an executive resolution, and Zonal Councils were established…

    Inter-state councilPolityZonal councils
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  14. Q14 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres, the Governor of a State acts as per his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration, even if it has not been forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. Only I✓
    2. Only II
    3. I and II both
    4. Neither I nor II
    Answer explanation

    Only I Article 163 of the Constitution explicitly provides that the Governor shall act in certain matters in his/her own discretion, making Statement I correct.…

    GovernorPolityPresident's powers
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  15. Q15 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following pairs (Provision in the Constitution of India : Stated under): I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : Directive Principles of State Policy. II. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture : Fundamental Duties. III. Prohibition of employment of children below 14 years of age in factories : Fundamental Rights. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three✓
    4. None
    Answer explanation

    All the three Separation of judiciary from the executive (Article 50) is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (I correct).…

    Directive principlesFundamental rightsPolity
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  16. Q16 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if the Fifth Schedule area in a State is declared as a Scheduled Area, then I. In such areas, the State Government loses its executive power and a local body assumes total administration. II. The Government of the Union can, under certain circumstances, take over the total administration of such areas on the recommendations of the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. Only I
    2. Only II✓
    3. I and II both
    4. Neither I nor II
    Answer explanation

    Only II In Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government does not automatically lose executive power to a local body; rather, the Governor has special powers to regulate the applicability of laws and administration…

    Fifth schedulePolityScheduled areas
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  17. Q17 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to India, consider the following pairs (Organization : Union Ministry): I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry. II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries. III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None✓
    Answer explanation

    None The National Automotive Board functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries (not Commerce and Industry), the Coir Board functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (not Heavy Industries), and the National…

    Government organizationsMinistriesPolity
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  18. Q18 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I - Union List, in the Seventh Schedule. II. Extent of the executive power of a State. III. Conditions of the Governor's office. For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

    1. I and II only✓
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
    Answer explanation

    I and II only Under the proviso to Article 368(2), amendments affecting matters such as the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States (which includes the Union List) and the extent of the executive power of the Union…

    Article 368Constitutional amendmentPolity
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  19. Q19 2025 Prelims GS

    With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. A Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. No Member of a State Legislature is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said in the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III✓
    Answer explanation

    I, II and III Article 361 provides Governors immunity from court proceedings for the exercise of powers and duties of office (I) and protection from criminal proceedings during their term (II).…

    GovernorLegislative privilegesPolity
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  20. Q20 2025 Prelims GS

    Consider the following statements with regard to the pardoning power of the President of India: I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. Only I✓
    2. Only II
    3. I and II both
    4. Neither I nor II
    Answer explanation

    Only I The Supreme Court has held that the exercise of the President's pardoning power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review, e.g., for arbitrariness or mala fide exercise (Statement I correct).…

    Article 72Pardoning powerPolity
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